Ok, I’ll try moving aside from all the kiddy-comments and taking a serious look at the question at hand here.

Before we can answer the question, we need to know what being a “virgin” is defined as. The dictionary definition of “virgin” doesn’t vary too drastically from book to book, but the minor differences in the context of its definition have a large impact on what can be defined as “virgin” and not. “<em>A person who has not experienced sexual intercourse,</em>” differs from “<em>one who has not had sexual intercourse,</em>” not much in the wording of its definition, but does differ dramatically in the meaning of that definition. Both are dictionary definitions, but one focuses on the emotional/mental aspect of virginity while the other focuses on the physical aspect of virginity itself.

Thus, because both these definitions for virginity exist, two views on the question must be taken in accordance with the two definitions. Using the example of someone who has unknowingly engaged in sexual intercourse, we can see how these two definitions play in accordance with our situation. In our case here, a person who has engaged in sexual intercourse has developed amnesia. According to the first definition, the amnesiac is still a virgin, as he has no memory of his sexual intercourse, and therefore cannot be described as having experienced sexual intercourse.

With the second definition, the amnesiac is not a virgin, as his body has engaged in sexual intercourse, and thus cannot be described as virgin.

Of course, the second definition itself could be argued to not apply to a case wherein the person being described was not aware they were engaging in sexual intercourse. With the use of “one who,” it implies that the subject of the definition is the same person who was present at the time of the sexual intercourse. However, in the case of the amnesiac, they aren’t the same person who engaged in sexual intercourse, so the second definition of virgin could be said not to apply to them.

As for the “rape” issue, on the surface that appears a little trickier. I think that a clear definition on “sexual intercourse” and “rape” is needed before the question of virginity can be applied to it. Sexual intercourse is described simply as “coitus between humans,” there is no definition behind it besides the simple physical act of sexual intercourse. However, I believe that there are many people who would argue that sexual intercourse as it is commonly regarded involves more than just the physical aspects of the act. These additional criteria added onto the definition of sexual intercourse must be considered when dealing with any issue regarding sexual intercourse.

“Rape” is defined as “The crime of forcing another person to submit to sex acts, especially sexual intercourse,” however, I must make specific note of the fact that rape involves “<em>forcing</em>” another person into sexual intercourse. Thus, it can be estabilished that there is in more than one type of sexual intercourse in which a person can engage. I consider rape to be a seperate type of sexual intercourse from which we are all familiar.

Clearly, using a simple dictionary definition of both these words would imply that if one is raped, then they accordingly lose their virginity. However, the additional criteria onto the definitions of both which I previously mentioned have a dramatic impact on the question as well. It’s a pretty common conception that sexual intercourse involves a sort of intimacy between the male and female, whereas rape is devoid of it. Therefore, I am more inclined to believe that because sexual intercourse involves this intimacy, whereas rape does not, that one who was raped has not lost their virginity.

Thus, in order to understand the concept of “virginity” clearer, one must understand both the physical and mental aspects of it. In order for virginity to be lost, one must be in a conscious mental state, fully aware of what they are doing. Additionally, coitus must be achieved in an <em>intimate and conceding</em> manner. Each of these points is just as important as the next, and therefore each point must be considered in a question regarded the state of an individual’s virginity. Should any point have been omitted, then virginity is intact.

Sexual intercourse need not be intimate. What about those who have sex with someone to get back at someone else? By your definition, since intimacy is omited, that person is still a virgin; yet they wouldn’t be considered virgins

Back to the first two questions, I believe that virginity is a state of mind. If a person does not remember losing their virginity or does not want to, their virginity is still intact.

The answer is, it doesn’t matter. “Virginity” is just a word, a concept that someone invented. There’s no actual “state” of virginity. A man who’s had sex is no different than a man who hasn’t. The only difference in a woman who’s had sex is purely physical. If you want to classify an amnesiac who’s had sex as a virgin, fine; if not, then don’t. The reality is the same either way: someone had sex and then forgot about it.